If f(x) and g(x) are polynomials for which f(0)=g(0) and f(1)=g(1), then f(x)=g(x)....State true or false and give a proof supporting your answer.
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False. If f(x)=x^3, f(0)=0 and f(1)=1; if g(x)=x^2, then g(0)=0 and g(1)=1 but f(x) not equal to g(x).
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