I need to know the steps to understand how to solve.
in Calculus Answers by

Your answer

Your name to display (optional):
Privacy: Your email address will only be used for sending these notifications.
Anti-spam verification:
To avoid this verification in future, please log in or register.

1 Answer

There is no inverse function, because we would need to map 0 to both 0 and 2 (for example), and a function by definition must have a unique mapping of the domain to the range. A one-to-many mapping is not permissible. f(x) is a parabola so in general there are two different values of x mapping to the same value. The inverse function would need to map that value to two different values, which is not possible.

by Top Rated User (1.2m points)

Related questions

1 answer
asked Oct 12, 2012 in Calculus Answers by anonymous | 12.8k views
2 answers
asked May 10, 2013 in Algebra 2 Answers by anonymous | 859 views
1 answer
asked Mar 10, 2012 in Algebra 1 Answers by anonymous | 3.3k views
1 answer
1 answer
0 answers
2 answers
1 answer
asked Sep 4, 2012 in Calculus Answers by anonymous | 629 views
1 answer
asked Sep 23, 2021 in Other Math Topics by anonymous | 732 views
1 answer
asked Jul 15, 2017 in Other Math Topics by anonymous | 3.8k views
2 answers
asked Jan 27, 2016 in Algebra 2 Answers by anonymous | 1.1k views
1 answer
asked Dec 15, 2015 in Algebra 2 Answers by Megan | 839 views
Welcome to MathHomeworkAnswers.org, where students, teachers and math enthusiasts can ask and answer any math question. Get help and answers to any math problem including algebra, trigonometry, geometry, calculus, trigonometry, fractions, solving expression, simplifying expressions and more. Get answers to math questions. Help is always 100% free!
87,516 questions
100,279 answers
2,420 comments
732,211 users