prove this please.
in Trigonometry Answers by

Your answer

Your name to display (optional):
Privacy: Your email address will only be used for sending these notifications.
Anti-spam verification:
To avoid this verification in future, please log in or register.

1 Answer

sec-1(-x)=π-sec-1(x).

Let y=sec-1(x), then sec(y)=x, x=1/cos(y).

cos(π-y)=-cos(y), so sec(π-y)=-sec(y)=-x, so π-y=sec-1(-x), or π-sec-1(x)=sec-1(-x).

Therefore sec-1(-x)=π-sec-1(x) QED

by Top Rated User (1.2m points)

Related questions

1 answer
asked Nov 23, 2016 in Trigonometry Answers by Ram | 2.2k views
1 answer
1 answer
asked Nov 11, 2013 in Trigonometry Answers by Aminul Islam | 1.1k views
1 answer
asked May 12, 2013 in Trigonometry Answers by anonymous | 636 views
1 answer
asked Apr 29, 2013 in Trigonometry Answers by anonymous | 762 views
1 answer
asked Apr 25, 2013 in Trigonometry Answers by anonymous | 661 views
Welcome to MathHomeworkAnswers.org, where students, teachers and math enthusiasts can ask and answer any math question. Get help and answers to any math problem including algebra, trigonometry, geometry, calculus, trigonometry, fractions, solving expression, simplifying expressions and more. Get answers to math questions. Help is always 100% free!
87,516 questions
100,279 answers
2,420 comments
733,089 users