Let m and n be positive integers. Let f(i,j) be an expression defined for every i∈{1,…,m} and every j∈{1,…,n}. Prove that ∑i=1m∑j=1nf(i,j)=∑j=1n∑i=1mf(i,j).

(Hint: Use induction on n.)
in Other Math Topics by

Your answer

Your name to display (optional):
Privacy: Your email address will only be used for sending these notifications.
Anti-spam verification:
To avoid this verification in future, please log in or register.

Related questions

1 answer
1 answer
1 answer
asked Dec 5, 2013 in Other Math Topics by karan | 599 views
1 answer
asked Dec 6, 2015 in Other Math Topics by codeguru Level 1 User (260 points) | 1.0k views
0 answers
1 answer
asked Apr 9, 2014 in Geometry Answers by xoxamberxox Level 1 User (340 points) | 1.4k views
1 answer
asked Jun 23, 2013 in Algebra 2 Answers by U.I.G.Mudalige Level 1 User (120 points) | 619 views
0 answers
asked Apr 3, 2013 in Calculus Answers by anonymous | 554 views
1 answer
asked Dec 17, 2012 in Geometry Answers by anonymous | 1.3k views
Welcome to MathHomeworkAnswers.org, where students, teachers and math enthusiasts can ask and answer any math question. Get help and answers to any math problem including algebra, trigonometry, geometry, calculus, trigonometry, fractions, solving expression, simplifying expressions and more. Get answers to math questions. Help is always 100% free!
87,516 questions
100,279 answers
2,420 comments
731,755 users